Trinity Without Hierarchy edited by Michael F. Bird and Scott Harrower.
I have noticed,
recently, that there is some sort of proposition going around (particularly in
relation to man/woman husband/wife relationships) that the Trinity does not
have any authoritative order, especially, that there is no subordination
among the Persons of the Trinity.
When I received a notice that I could get a review copy of this book of collected essays by many people:
Trinity Without Hierarchy: Reclaiming Nicene Orthodoxy in Evangelical Theology
edited by Michael F. Bird and Scott Harrower , my dad wanted me to get it and
look into the topic.
I did not know that
there was controversy over this particular topic, and I don't believe I've ever
really considered it before. I
unconsciously have always assumed that God the Son does the will of God the
Father, and that that is something that has always been the case, as that is
what a basic reading of the Scriptures teaching on the Godhead seems to
indicate. After going through this
book, I don't see any Scripturally compelling reason to change that
viewpoint. If you do not understand
exactly what this viewpoint entails, you'll get the gist in my critique.
It seems that the
main reason all this argument has come on the scene is because some
evangelicals have been using the relationship of the Trinity to argue for
complementarianism among the sexes. I agree, for the most part, with the
authors of these articles that that is not a hermeneutically valid argument.
The Trinity's relationship to each other does not necessitate human beings
relating to each other in the same way.
TRINITY NOT EQUAL IF
THERE IS AUTHORITY AND SUBMISSION
I think the most
compelling argument they offer is that the Trinity is One and therefore there
can be no significant differences among the Persons of the Godhead. But, when looking at their arguments, I see
some of the logic of it but I don't see it as overwhelmingly compelling
biblically.
Let me give you some
quotations from the book to demonstrate some of their arguments and I'll
comment on them:
"…To assert relations of authority and submission
within a single divine will is similarly impossible: authority and submission require a diversity
of volitional faculties. Where there is
one single will, there can necessarily be no authority or submission."
In other Words, we know that God the Father
and the Son are one, have the exact same will and therefore there cannot be
said to be authority or submission in that divine relationship. Now for my
commentary: I'm not sure that that is
actually the case. Let me give you an
illustration to demonstrate how that type of argument sounds to me: If a wife
always agrees with every decision her husband makes, because he is her husband,
and wants to do whatever his will is in everything, it isn't actually submission
because she never disagrees with him? If she agrees with him in what he wants
to do and submits to it, her husband doesn't actually have authority and she
isn't actually submitting? I don't think that one can say that the husband has
no authority and the wife is not submissive simply because the wife always
obeys the husband and wants to do the same thing He does.
I don't see how it
is bionically inaccurate to say that God the Son willingly submits to God the
Father because He is God the Father. I
don't see that Christ's complete willingness to do the Father's will indicates that
Christ is not obeying the Father and that the Father is not authoritative.
And my second
quotation from the book, which is actually a quotation of a quotation that the
author of this particular chapter makes about the Trinity, "neither with regard to nature nor activity is any
distinction beheld".
Let me list some
questions I have in regard to this statement which really make me reluctant to
agree with it:
When the Son said,
"My God, My God, Why have you forsaken Me?" (Matt 27:46), Did God the
Father say the same thing to the Son? Say the Same thing to the Holy
Spirit? Did Christ and the Holy Spirit
also separate from the Father? Forsake Him? Did the Father and Christ forsake
the Holy Spirit?
When the Son says,
"Not My will but Thine, be done"(Luke
22:42), does the Father at any point also say, "Not My Will but the Son's
be done?"
At the end of time,
God the Father puts everything under God the Son's feet (1 Cor 15:27). Does God
the Father ever put everything under the Holy Spirit? We also find that the Son Himself is then
subjected to God the Father and the Bible makes it very clear that it is not a
vice-versa thing. God the Father is NOT subjected to God the Son: "Then comes the end, when
he hands over the kingdom to God the Father, when he has brought to an end all
rule and all authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all
his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be eliminated is
death. For he has put everything in subjection under his feet. But when it says 'everything' has been put in
subjection, it is clear that this does not include the one who put everything
in subjection to him. And when all things are subjected to him, then the
Son himself will be subjected to the one who subjected everything to him, so
that God may be all in all."(1 Corinthians 15:27-28 NET)
Some of the writers,
to varying degrees, seem to concede some sort of submission but only as a part
of the Trinity's plan to save people did Christ submit to the Father. But they
seem to think that it wasn't quite God the Son who submitted. At least that's what they seem to be
saying. It is posited that Jesus had a
human will and a divine will and that "the
human will of the Son is subordinate to the divine will." But can
we actually separate His human will from His divine will? Where are we ever
told that there was a discrepancy between Christ's human will and His divine
one? Where are we ever given an indication that Christ ever had a Romans 7-like
scenario? I know, I know, people will say, "in the Garden of
Gethsemane!" (Luke 22:42). But I
see no Biblical reason to believe that that was actually God the Son in His
humanity speaking separately from His Divinity.
Why would we assume that Jesus' flesh EVER 'took over' or 'manifested
itself' over against His Divinity? Don't we believe that Christ's humanity was
completely untainted by sin? That even His human nature, his flesh, did not
include a tendency to sin?
To show how the book
carries the thought further let me give you another quote: "It is Christ's humanity that will submit to the
Father, not Christ's divinity." Jesus submitted His human will to
the Father but not His divine will? I am very, very nervous about that
statement. I see what they are trying to
do, but I don't know that they have a biblical right to say that. Why would we assume that when God the Son,
embodied in flesh, ever speaks of Himself He isn't necessarily speaking of His
WHOLE self, His 'real' Self, but merely of His physicality? It seems almost a
direct contradiction to the texts about the Son talking about His submission to
the Father to assert or think that He Himself wasn't actually submissive, that
it was just His flesh that was subordinate.
Besides, wouldn't that make God the Son not 'wholly man', so His
divinity is not actually joined with flesh? Couldn't it be used to say also
that, when people are worshiping Christ, they are worshiping His humanity,
not His divinity? That only God the Son, DISEMBODIED, is truly God?
"Eternal submission is to misunderstand the Son,
and therefore diminish his glory, power and will…" Who says? Where does the Bible say this? How
does submitting to the Father diminish Christ's glory? It was veiled during the
incarnation, but He always had it, right?
How does it diminish His power? His power over God the Father? Does it
diminish the Son's will because the Father's will is done and not His in
particular(even though the Scripture indicates that He wants the Father's will
done)?
ETERNAL BEGOTTENESS OF THE SON BY THE FATHER
Another concept that
is propounded throughout the book is the eternal 'generating' of the Son by the
Father. It's a proposition of what we are actually supposed to be deducing from
the terms "Father" and "Son" in the Godhead. The writers of
this book seem to think that, though God the Father, Son and Holy Spirit have
always been God the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, those terms specifically have
reference to origin, not hierarchy. That
the Father eternally generates, or begets, the Son. "For the pro-Nicenes, the Father was 'first' among the three persons
of the Trinity. He is the one who
generates the Son and who spirates 'the Spirit'."The Son was always
eternally generated, eternally begotten by the Father before He was physically
begotten in the flesh. This is pretty
much, solely, according to this book, the only thing we are to glean from the
terms "Father" and "Son" in the Trinity. As one of the essay writers puts it: ""…there
is nothing other than eternal generation that we can say of the Father-Son
relation."
I don't understand
how that is so definitive. Why is it that they can dogmatically say that the
terms "Father" and "Son" only have reference to
'generation' and that they absolutely, positively, CANNOT possibly have
reference to a hierarchy? What if they
actually do? What if that's EXACTLY what we are to understand about the Father,
Son and Holy Spirit? What if they really do mean that, though the Son is of the
same essence as the Father, He is subordinate to the Father? And that both can
be true at the same time? The New Testament presents that viewpoint, it
indicates that God the Son submits to God the Father.
IS SUBMISSION GLORIOUS?
That leads me to
another question, several questions, actually:
Is submission glorious? Can we say that it is not? Seeing that the Son
humbled Himself and yet did not need to 'grasp' glory, as it were, because it
was already His? Is submission to the
Father not a natural part of the divine Son's character? Why do we assume the
Son is lesser if He eternally obeys the will of the Father? Isn't the Son doing
a glorious thing in submitting to the Father? The Bible seems to plainly
indicate that the Son's submission to the Father is a glorious, not a
demeaning, thing.
Do we actually
believe that there should be NO paradoxes in our understanding of God? That we
should be able to completely understand everything about Him? That nothing
about Him will go beyond our comprehension? The Bible seems to indicate that
all the Persons of the Trinity are One and yet that having authority and
submission among the Godhead does not negate that equality.
Can we take
everything the Bible says about God in simple faith, not having to understand
everything about Him but simply believing that what God says about Himself is
true? And that everything God the Son,
even in His incarnate state, says about Himself, is also true, and true about
His whole Self, not merely about His physical self, even if it boggles our
minds? Shouldn't we take Him at His Word?
When Christ says, "I and the Father are One" (John
10:30) and, "The Father is Greater than
I" (John 14:28), Shouldn't our first response be to assume that
both statements are wholly true of Him and not merely of His physical body but
of His Divine nature as well? And
shouldn't we assume that, without our having to fully understand it, the Father
being greater than the Son does not diminish the Son's glory or take away from
His Oneness with the Father?
CREEDS: THE AUTHORITY FOR OUR FAITH?
The book seems to
make the case that Ancient 'Christian' Creeds and traditions are a part of
forming our faith. That we ought not to depart from the writings and traditions
of the early Christians who lived after the time of the Apostles. I'll give you an example of what I am talking
about by quoting the book again:
"I am
aware that some involved in defending EFS have also denied eternal generation;
I do not have much to say about that except that to deny eternal generation is
certainly to deny the doctrine of the Trinity, and, given that 'eternally
begotten of the Father' is a confession of the Nicene Creed, is in grave danger
of departing from what can meaningfully be called Christianity - it is, once
again, to side with Unitarians and Jehovah's Witnesses in claiming that the
Christian doctrine of God is unbiblical."
So if we depart from
the conclusions and interpretations of ancient professing Christian writers we
are departing from Christianity? We
can't just use the Bible, we have to agree with the interpretations of the Bible
written by ancient professing Christians? This might sound horrible to say, but
the Nicene Creed is not something that I hold to. I don't think I even knew what it said before
I read this book, and even then I don't remember a lot of it (don't think I
could quote any of what I read verbatim), and I don't know what the whole thing
says, but I don't feel guilty about that. The Nicene Creed, the Westminster
Confession, the London Baptist Confession…etc. are not, and never have been the
Biblical measurement of faith. And I
think that's rather obvious as they do not form a part of the canon of
Scripture.
The writers of this
compilation of essays seem dangerously close to canonizing the Nicene
Creed. I know that they would deny it,
but, as saw from the above quotation,
they really seem to exalt it's authority. I think that L. S. Chafer warned us well
when he said: "It is a bad indication when,
in any period, men will so exalt their confessions that they force the
Scriptures to a secondary importance, illustrated in one era, when as Tulloch
remarks: 'Scripture as a witness, disappeared behind the Augsburg Confession'
...No decrees of councils; no ordinances of synods; no 'standard' of doctrines;
no creed or confession, is to be urged as authority in forming the opinions of
men. They may be valuable for some purposes, but not for this; they may be
referred to as interesting parts of history, but not to form the faith of
Christians; they may be used in the church to express its belief, not to form it."
I must
admit, this argument about the Trinity is a topic I'm nervous about as it seems
too easy to come to a wrong conclusion about God, to be dogmatic where the
Scripture is silent, going beyond the bounds of revelation. But I’m really
scared of where these people are going with their argument as their foundation
seems to be the Nicene Creed. In the
book, one of the writers states: "It may be that EFS/ERAS is biblical and correct, but
if it is, the classical Christian tradition of orthodox Trinitarians must
inevitably be unbiblical and wrong."
But that shouldn't drastically shake us up because our faith
shouldn't be based in the "classical Christian tradition" anyway, but
in God's written Word.
Many thanks to the folks at Kregel Academic for
providing me with a free review copy of this book (My review did not have to be
favorable)
My Rating: 1 out of 5 Stars
*
This book may be purchased at Christianbook.com and Amazon.com
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